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10-21-2010 @ 11:36AM
Perhaps the concept itself is flawed/illogical. Can one still have the proverbial cake even after the point of consumption. It may also be possible that the cake idiom is limited in application and, in a more extreme view, pedantic. The "can't have your cake and eat it to" example requires a specific definition of "have". What does the saying mean, precisely? Consider the fact that idioms can and do contradict each other.
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